- How would a “pure” risk best be described?
a) Winning at the poker tables in Las Vegas
b) Experiencing a loss in the stock market
c) Losing some pay from work because of an injury
d) The fluctuations of international currency
—
- Insurable interest in a life insurance policy:
a) Does not need to exist at the time of loss, only at the time the policy is written
b) Must exist only at the time of a loss
c) Throughout the entire life of the policy
—
3. The Maple Insurance Company has only the Milehigh Manufacturing account for disability income insurance for all of Milehigh’s employees. A high concentration of these insureds is in one location. Oak Grove Insurance Company previously had the account along with many other large manufacturing companies around the country. Choose from below the correct statement(s) regarding the “law of large numbers” as it relates to these two insurers:
- Oak Grove can use the law of large numbers better than Maple
- Catastrophic loss exposure was the same for both insurers
- The more employees are insured, the better a company can predict the injury of any one employee
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
—
- Non-participating policies:
a) Use their dividends for purchasing other products
b) Cannot be whole life insurance
c) Are tied to the Consumer Price Index
d) Will not pay a dividend
—
- Raymond, an agent who represents the Sterling Insurance Company advertises in the yellow pages:
STERLING INSURANCE CO.
Raymond Insurance Agency
Raymond no longer has a contract to sell for Sterling but since Sterling has such a good name he decides to let the ad run again. This would be considered:
a) Creative marketing and an encouraged practice
b) Twisting
c) Express authority
d) Apparent authority
—
- Insurance firms and their agents have to identify questions that are asked of the applicants for insurance that are (partly) used for marketing research as long as they are specified for underwriting purposes. This is per the California Insurance Code.
a) True
b) False
—
- If a court were to decide your insurance policy was written in an ambiguous or unclear fashion the special characteristic of an insurance policy that will prompt the court to rule in your favor is:
a) Adhesion
b) Unilateral
c) Negligence
d) Aleatory
—
- Among other powers, the Insurance Commissioner has the responsibility and authority to redraft parts of the Code whenever he/she sees fit.
a) Yes if it is in the public’s best interest
b) Yes after an investigation and it is deemed against the public’s best interest
c) No, only the legislature may pass changes to the insurance code
d) No, unless it’s in the public’s best interest
—
9. Which of the following is correct about a representation provided by either the insurance company or applicant in negotiations for an insurance policy?
- Could not be a misrepresentation if it was provided orally and not written.
- May be altered.
- May be withdrawn
- Only the insurer is allowed to rescind if a representation involves a material point.
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) none of the above
—
- As defined by the Insurance Code, “transacting” insurance means:
a) The negotiations leading up to the final execution of a policy
b) Taking your family on a Hawaiian vacation paid for by the commissions earned on a large life insurance sale
c) Putting a list of prospects together
d) Both of the above
—
- In order to obtain the license of a life and disability insurance analyst, an individual is required to have which of the following?
a) A good business reputation
b) A thorough knowledge of life, health, and disability insurance
c) Must be a fit and proper person
d) All of the above are required
—
- When can an application for an agent’s license be denied without a hearing?
a) The applicant has had no prior insurance experience.
b) The applicant has been charged with a felony.
c) The applicant has had an application for a license denied previously within the past 5 years for cause.
d) All of these are grounds for denial without hearing.
—
- When does the license of an Accident and Health agent become inactive?
a) When the agent is not transacting with the general public.
b) When the agent is not currently appointed by an insurer, but renewal fees are paid, and continuing education requirements have been met.
c) When the license passes its renewal date.
d) When the appointment agreement time period expires.
—
- Life insurers are required to maintain records on policies they have sold. How long from the date of delivery must these records be kept?
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 3 years
d) 5 years
—
- A licensed agent tells a prospect he is guaranteed the amount he will get in dividends. Being convicted of this misdemeanor could result in going to jail for 30 days.
a) True
b) False
—
- The Unfair Practices Act allows:
a) Associations to recommend to their members to not sell products for companies that may sell insurance direct to the public.
b) Tell people who have filed claims not to engage attorneys.
c) Having different life policy and annuity premiums for men and women based on gender specific mortality table information.
d) All the above
—
- Which of the following is/are true?
a) Staying educated on insurance issues can help one act more ethically.
b) Increased sales volume does not necessarily mean an agent is acting more ethically.
c) Both of the above are correct.
d) Both of the above are incorrect
—
- Insurers are not allowed to refuse insurance, charge a higher rate, or limit coverage on a person who has a physical handicap if these limitations, restrictions, or ratings are based on sound actuarial statistics or are related to reasonable anticipated experience.
a) True
b) False
—
- There are many unique features in health policies written for groups. They typically don’t require evidence of insurability, don’t focus on individual selection, and spread their risk among a large number of people, thus avoiding adverse selection. Since the groups can be quite large, does the insurer become too busy processing applications to do a good job of underwriting?
a) Yes
b) No
—
- From the choices below select the one which is false about Social Security (OASDHI):
a) The program is considered “fully funded”.
b) The benefits received are not closely related to the contributions made, actuarially speaking.
c) It will likely need to be supplemented by the individual participant since it was designed only to provide a minimum floor of income.
d) It is, for the most part, a compulsory system.
—
21a. A very serious accident occurs while on vacation rendering a 47-year-old warehouse manager completely disabled. He is not expected to recover from his total paralysis. Select the program(s) below which would most likely entitle him to disability income benefits.
a) Medicare
b) Medi-Cal
c) Social Security
d) Workers Compensation
—
21b. A very serious accident occurs while woking rendering a 47-year-old warehouse manager completely disabled. He is not expected to recover from his total paralysis. Select the program(s) below which would most likely entitle him to disability income benefits.
a) Medicare
b) Medi-Cal
c) Social Security
d) Workers Compensation
—
- Applicant forms used for health insurance:
a) Express facts about the person applying.
b) Are required to be submitted to begin the process of acquiring the health insurance plan.
c) Represent a request to an insurer to provide an insurance contract based on the information contained in the application.
d) All the above are correct.
—
- Which of the below often acts as a “field underwriter?”
a) The claims department
b) A person being interview by the insurance company for a large policy application.
c) The agent
d) The actuarial department
—
- A schedule illustrating the probabilities of death each year for life insurance is called:
a) A morbidity table
b) A premium table
c) An annuity table
d) A mortality table
—
- A schedule illustrating the probabilities of disabilities each year for accident and health insurance is called:
a) A morbidity table
b) A premium table
c) An annuity table
d) A mortality table
—
- The replacement of health insurance contracts requires which of the following:
a) A statement to the effect that the policy being applied for is replacing a prior one.
b) That laws apply alike for group or individual plans
c) A disclosure by the applicant that they own other policies
d) All the above
—
- The professional liability insurance that an agent should purchase is known as Errors and Omissions coverage. Which of the following statements concerning this type of insurance is correct?
a) It would have a relatively low deductible of $100 or $250.
b) It would cover the dishonest omission of an agent or broker.
c) It would cover an agent who created a financial loss by forgetting to renew a policy – a negligent act.
d) None of the above
—
- If Bill were to expose the insurer to an increased risk on his disability income policy because he has taken up sky diving, can the policy be non-renewed for cause or the premiums raised?
a) Yes, if it is a non-renewable contract
b) No, only renewable contracts can be issued
c) No, renewable and non-renewable apply only to health insurance
d) No, because it’s an aleatoric contract
—
- Under certain conditions, an individual health insurance policy owner may reinstate a lapsed policy. These conditions:
a) Require that reinstatement can only be done within a grace period
b) Are found in the reinstatement provision of the policy
c) Say you can reinstate if past due premiums are paid back with interest within 5 years
d) Are not normally a part of a policy, they must be requested
—
- A participating policy gives the policy owner the right to receive dividends. These dividends are not guaranteed.
a) True
b) False
—
- The following are all examples of health care facilities except:
a) Hospital
b) A skilled nursing facility
c) A third party administrator
d) A surgicenter
—
- Primrose Industries has 100 employees and provides them a health insurance program. Because of the Dual Choice federal law the employees must be given the option of choosing which of the following if it is located nearby.
a) An Administrative Services Only program
b) An Exclusive Provider Organization
c) A Health Maintenance Organization
d) Blue Cross/Blue Shield
—
33. Gatekeepers are often found in managed care programs. But a recent trend is to include them in major medical insurance policies.
a) True
b) False
—
- Capitation can be described as:
a) A fee-for-service approach for health care
b) Payment made directly to the subscriber
c) An HMO concept that pays doctors a predetermined monthly fee
—
- If you were signed up with a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) which of the following statements could you say about this program?
a) You are able to select any doctor or health care facility you want with no reduction in what the PPO will pay these providers.
b) The PPO has agreed to pay for services with a prearranged price depending on the type of service provided.
c) If you go to a doctor that is not a part of the PPO network, the PPO will pay nothing
d) The doctors are on a capitation basis rather than fee-for-service
—
- Select the choice(s) that are not the responsibilities of a master contract owner for a group of employees in their health insurance.
- Select only the employees that do not represent too high of a risk for the insurer, a form of field underwriting.
- Own the master policy
- Submit to the insurer information required for applying for the contract
- Assure premiums are paid when due
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2 & 4
c) 1 only
d) 3 only
—
- Patrick attends a large university as a student. One of his student benefits is that he has blanket health insurance coverage. What would be a correct statement about Patrick’s insurance?
a) The insurer has issued the contract only to Patrick and will cover medical bills on an excess basis
b) The policy breaks the coverage up into groups of 5 students or less
c) Patrick is not individually identified on the policy, rather it insures an entire “class” of insureds
d) Patrick will only be covered if he is in his dorm and sleeping
—
- Which of the following cannot be used as the only reason for an insurer to decline a health insurance application?
a) Preexisting conditions
b) Fraudulent misstatements on application information gathered from the Medical Information Bureau (MIB)
—
- What is a morbidity table?
a) A table that has information on the probability of disabilities because of sicknesses or accidents
b) A table that has information on the probability of death
c) A table that projects the number of deaths each year
—
- What is required of the insured to attain group insurance coverage and not have to provide “evidence of insurability?”
a) Enrollment must occur during an eligibility period
b) Nothing at all
c) An attending physician’s statement (APS) is needed with the application
—
- Mandatory health insurance provisions for policies issued in this state require insurers to provide a minimum number of days for a grace period. The insurer can lengthen the period but not decrease it. If a policy calls for a premium to be paid less frequently than each month (quarterly, semi-annually, or annually) the minimum grace period is:
a) 120 days
b) 30 or 31 days
c) 10 days
d) 7 days
—
- In a health insurance policy, reinstatement provisions permit an insured to reactivate a policy even after it has expired. In this case the law states that the insurer cannot require a new application be submitted by the insured.
a) True
b) False
—
43a. How many provisions are found in the Uniform Optional Provisions?
a) 11
b) 12
c) 15
d) None, there are no optional provisions allowed
—
43b. How many provisions are found in the Uniform Mandatory Provisions?
a) 11
b) 12
c) 15
d) None, there are no mandatory provisions allowed
—
- Which of the following is a true statement?
a) The “free look” clause gives an applicant enough time (30 days) to review proposed endorsements and any sales literature before applying for insurance.
b) The “free look” clause provides that an insurer has the authorization to get an inspection report and physical exam within 15 days on the proposed insured prior to insuring.
c) The “free look” clause allows the insured to review the contract for a number of days (10 days). If they so desire, they may return it and receive a full refund of premiums paid.
d) The “free look” clause only lets the applicant look over the application for 10 days before filling it out.
—
- With all terms being the same, a cancelable disability income policy will have a less expensive premium as compared to a guaranteed renewable or non-cancelable policy.
a) True
b) False
—
- As in life insurance, when a health policy is issued to an employee on a group basis, the employee is provided a certificate of insurance that explains many of the important points of the policy specific to that employee.
a) True
b) False
—
- The COBRA act was changed and clarified by:
a) OBRA
b) ERISA
c) TEFRA
d) TAMRA
—
- Which of the following terms are used to describe the extent of a disability?
a) Partial
b) Presumptive
c) Residual
d) All the above
—
- In disability income policies, the average income of the person involved in the occupation is what the benefit is based upon.
a) True
b) False
—
- A temporary disability is when a disability renders a person unable to work but they are expected to fully recover.
a) True
b) False
—
- An accident occurs injuring a person while working on the job. Choose from below the type of disability policy that will specifically not provide coverage in this event.
a) Workers’ Compensation
b) A non-occupational policy
c) A high-hazard occupation policy
—
- Clara has purchased a disability policy containing a clause that will increase the benefit periodically should she be disabled and receive benefits for a certain period of time. She has learned that most DI companies offer this protection in order to help protect insureds from the loss of their purchasing power due to inflation. This clause is called the:
a) Co-insurance Clause
b) Benefit restoration provision
c) Maximum benefit option
d) The cost of living benefit
—
53a. Taxes paid on the benefits received from disability policies are determined by who pays the premium. If an employee pays the premiums:
a) The benefits are non-taxable to that employee
b) The benefits are tax deferred until withdrawn
c) The benefits are taxable to that employee
d) None of the above
—
53b. Taxes paid on the benefits received from disability policies are determined by who pays the premium. If the employer pays the premiums:
a) The benefits are non-taxable to that employee
b) The benefits are tax deferred until withdrawn
c) The benefits are taxable to that employee
d) None of the above
—
- Relative value units use a conversion table to determine benefits for:
a) Skilled nursing
b) Surgical procedures
c) The care of elderly parents
d) All the above
—
- If the insurer and insured are sharing losses based on a proportion (%) of benefits after the insured satisfies the deductible, it is referred to as:
a) A stop loss
b) Coinsurance
c) The “percentage definition” provision
d) None of the above
—
- The restoration of benefits feature is found:
a) In all HMO prepaid plans
b) Both A & B
c) In most major medical policies
d) Neither A nor B
—
- According to statute, the insurance coverage for controlled substance abuse and emotional or nervous disorders must be the same as all other benefits listed in the contract.
a) True
b) False
—
- Medicare coverage Part A extends coverage to skilled nursing facilities. What is the maximum time the entitled person can receive benefits per benefit period?
a) 100 days
b) There is no maximum time
c) 90 days
d) Medicare does not cover skilled nursing
—
- Concerning Medicare coverage, find the incorrect statement from the following.
a) Part B is funded completely by FICA payroll taxes
b) Part B contains a deductible and a co-payment
c) When one applies for Part A they are given the opportunity to enroll in Part B. They must reject Part B or they are automatically enrolled in it.
d) Part B provides coverage for medical expenses that are not paid for in Part A.
—
- Charles is not pleased with the fact that Medicare will not pay for certain health expense benefits. Charles:
a) Has no right to appeal since Social Security has to OK the complaint first.
b) Can appeal for Part A but not Part B
c) Can appeal for Part B but not Part A
d) Can appeal both Part A and B claims that are not paid
—
- Federal law does not permit an insurance company marketing Medicare supplement policy to make statements that suggest that their plans are endorsed by the government.
a) True
b) False
—
- Medicare supplement policies sold and issued as supplemental Medicare coverage, can be issued in which of the following ways?
a) Core benefits only
b) Either of these is allowed
c) Broader plans only
d) Neither of these is allowed
—
- Assume that in each of the following examples the person is 65 years of age. Who has the greatest need for comprehensive long term care insurance?
a) A person on Medi-Cal
b) A person with $500,000 of yearly income and $4 million in assets
c) A person with $50,000 in yearly income and $130,000 in assets
d) A person with $5,000 in yearly income and $7,000 in assets
—
- Choose the benefits from those listed below that are provided by a Long -Term Care policy.
a) Medicare Supplement plans
b) Home care and adult day care
c) Hospital coverage
d) Home care coverage only
—
- A benefit provided by Long -Term Care that gives rest or relief to family members caring for one who needs ongoing custodial care is:
a) Adult day care
b) Hospice care
c) Respite care
—
- By extending an elimination period and/or shortening a benefit period, Wanda can effectively reduce the premium she pays for a Long-Term Care policy.
a) True
b) False
—
- Brandy looks at the title page of her LTC contract. It states that the policy is a “Comprehensive Long -Term Care” insurance policy. She can be assured it covers:
a) Institutional and home care benefits
b) Home care only
c) Adult day care
d) None of the above
—
- HICAP (Health Insurance Counseling Advocacy Program) helps to provide to the senior community information on Medicare, health insurance, and retirement planning. What else is true in connection with HICAP?
a) HICAP charges a fee for this service
b) Both are true
c) HICAP does not endorse or sell any types of insurance
d) Both are false
—
- The group medical plan provision that applies when a claimant has coverage under more than one plan is known as?
a) Integration
b) Coordination of benefits
c) Co-insurance
d) Maximum benefits
—
- Which optional program is only for individuals at age 65?
a) Long Term Care
b) Social Security survivor benefits
c) Medicare Part A
d) Medicare Part B
—
- A commonly used cost containment measure for emergency hospital care under a major medical expense plan is:
a) Premium Tax
b) In-patient fee
c) Deductible
d) Pre-admission fee
—
72a. The process whereby a mutual insurer becomes a stock insurer is known as:
a) Reorganization
b) Stock buyout
c) Stock split
d) Demutualization
—
72b. The process whereby a stock insurer becomes a mutual insurer is known as:
a) Reorganization
b) Mutualization
c) Stock split
d) Demutualization
—
- 24-hour coverage is a relatively new form of insurance that combines health care with the California-required Worker’s Compensation protection. Currently, it still represents a small portion of the Workers Compensation market and it:
- Replaces Medicare Parts A and B for employees, as well as installing a new LTC coverage
- Is offered to persons purchasing through the California Partnership
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) both
d) neither
—
- An employee’s dependent who is 25, and in school full time, is always entitled to be covered under group insurance:
a) True
b) False
—
- If an applicant submits to a blood test, and the test verifies the applicant has AIDS, the insurance company cannot share this information with the applicant’s doctor.
a) True
b) False
—
- Group insurance law stipulates that an incontestability period be provided to the applicant. The time period is:
a) 2 years
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) There is no incontestability period
—
- Health insurance law stipulates that the provision “time limit on certain defenses” be provided to the applicant. The time period is:
a) 2 years
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) There is no incontestability period
—
- Certificates of insurance are issued to employees covered under group plans. These certificates may not contain which of the following?
a) The premium
b) The conversion clause
c) The person who would receive benefits
—
- Domestic life insurance companies can invest in all the following, except:
a) Bank CDs
b) Mutual funds
c) Junk bonds of small European countries
d) Real estate investments
—
- If an employer employs _______ or more employees, that employer must provide “dual choice,” which is the ability to choose an HMO.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 25
d) 100
—
- You have health coverage under an Exclusive Provider Organization. If you decide to use a doctor who is not in the EPO network you may have to pay all medical bills out of your pocket.
a) True
b) False
—
- Your client has Medicare Part A. This client spends a week in the hospital for a small operation. This is the first time she has had to be in a hospital for 3 years. Which of the following is/are true?
a) Medicare will not cover any hospital bills since she had to be admitted for at least 10 days.
b) After paying the deductible your client will have 100% of covered charges paid by Medicare.
c) Your client will have to pay a weekly co-payment.
d) After paying the deductible your client will pay 20% of covered charges.
—
- How many days will Medicare pay benefits if an individual is in a skilled nursing home?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 100
d) 365
—
- Which program below gives medical care to people considered financially indigent?
a) Medi-gap policies
b) Worker’s Compensation
c) HICAP
d) Medi-Cal/Medicaid
—
- HICAP provides which of the following?
- Legal assistance
- Consumer advocacy
- Drug counseling
- Medical aid
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) All the above
d) None of the above
—
- When must a policyowner have an insurable interest in the life of an insured?
a) For the whole length of time the policy is in force
b) When the loss occurs
c) When the policy becomes effective
d) (b) and (c) above
—
- In regard to representations, which of the following is correct?
a) Representations can only be in writing.
b) Representations are guaranteed to be true.
c) Representations are statements made to the best of one’s knowledge.
d) All are true
—
- Choose the correct statement about getting insurance through “non-admitted” carriers:
a) The Department does not regulate these insurers
b) The Department allows a life agent the same freedom to market non-admitted business as admitted business.
c) The Department does not allow a life agent the same freedom to market non-admitted business as admitted business.
—
89. The main purpose of an insurance Guarantee Associations is to protect the public against:
a) Discrimination
b) Loss as the result of insurer insolvency
c) High premium rates
d) False claims practices
—
- Choose from the list below those which are designated “classes” of insurance, according to the code.
- Liability
- Workers Compensation
- Annuities
- Marine
a) 2 and 3
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 1, 2, and 4
d) All the above
—
- An insurance solicitor is a natural person hired to assist an insurance broker in transacting insurance other than life insurance.
a) True
b) False
—
- Which of the following is not correct about long-term care insurance?
a) Provides coverage for at least 12 months in a row.
b) Has built-in upward adjustments for the possible future changes in Medicare long-term care coverage.
c) Can be purchased in a group plan.
d) Does not provide coverage for an acute care unit of a hospital.
—
- Coverage cannot be obtained from an admitted insurer. Therefore, an entity is identified that can sell insurance not underwritten in California. What is this entity?
a) An insurance broker
b) A foreign insurer
c) A bail bond broker
d) A surplus lines broker
—
- Regarding the handling of personal funds with fiduciary funds, which of the following is true?
a) The two funds can never commingle
b) Fiduciary funds are allowed to be placed in safe stock investments.
c) (a) and (b) are true.
d) (a) and (b) are false.
—
- With Medicare coverage:
a) Benefits are available only to persons age 65 or older
b) Both Part A and Part B provide benefits for care and skilled nursing facilities
c) Part B provides benefits for diagnostic tests and x-rays performed on an out-patient basis
d) Part A has neither deductibles nor co-insurance for the first 60 days of hospitalization
—
- What is the free look (Right of Rescission) of a disability insurance policy issued to an individual who has attained the age 65 or older?
a) 10 days
b) 25 days
c) 30 days
d) 91 days
—
- Choose from the items listed below a possible penalty for an agent who commits fraud:
a) Up to 5 years in prison
b) A fine of $150,000 or double the value of the fraud (whichever is greater)
c) A year in county jail
d) Any of the above
—
- Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The premium is the amount payable to the insurer from the insured.
b) The consideration is the amount payable to the insurer from the insured.
c) Neither is correct
d) Both are correct
—
- An insurance policy that states surplus from an insurance company that is shared with policy owners is a:
a) Participating policy
b) Non-participating policy
c) Stock insurance company contract
—
- The taxes that fund Social Security are paid by:
a) Employees only
b) Employers and employees equally
c) Employers only
d) Employers and employee, but the employer pays more.
—
- An insured pays a new deductible on a major medical policy every time an event occurs which causes medical expenses. What kind of deductible is this?
a) Common accident
b) All-cause
c) Carryover
d) Per-cause
—
- Which of the following benefits is not provided through Worker’s Compensation in California?
a) Death benefits
b) Medical benefits
c) Interest on lost income suffered while injured
d) Rehabilitation benefits
—
- Express warranties:
a) Help speed the underwriting process by not requiring some questions be answered on an application.
b) Do not have to be in writing
c) Are contained in the policy, signed by the insured, and made part of that contract
d) Do not have to be stated
—
- Group Insurance is usually written as:
a) Family policies
b) 5 year term
c) 1 year term
d) Universal
—
- Identify the minimum age that one must attain in order to be legally able to apply for a health and disability agent’s license in this state.
a) 15 to the nearest birthday
b) 16
c) 18
d) 21
—
- An insurance company can transact any class of insurance:
a) Authorized by its articles of incorporation of charter, and is admitted to transact that class by the insurance commissioner
b) Assuming it has paid all required fees
c) Assuming the Commissioner grants this ability
d) If it has 25 agents with signed appointments
—
- A written contract attempts to indemnify another party against loss, damage, or liability arising from a contingent or unknown event. This describes:
a) Incontestability
b) A provision
c) Insurance
d) An illegal contract
—
108a. An insurer endorses, rejects, declines, cancels, or surrenders an insurance policy. The insurance company must return any unearned premium to the insured within days of cancellation.
a) 15
b) 25
c) 35
d) 120
—
108b. An insurer endorses, rejects, declines, cancels, or surrenders an insurance policy, the agent of record must return any unearned premium to the insured within ____days of receipt from the insurance company.
a) 15
b) 25
c) 35
d) 120
—
- A may charge a fee for providing advice and consultation in reference to insurance.
a) Life analyst
b) Charter Property and Casualty Underwriter
c) Life agent
d) None of the above
—
- Jerry collects premiums and pays claims associated with life or health insurance and annuities. Jerry should hold:
a) An insurance adjuster’s license
b) A life broker license
c) A life analyst license
d) An Administrator Certificate
—
- After receiving your insurance license, if you change your address, you are to notify the Commissioner, in writing:
a) Within 10 days
b) Immediately
c) Within 60 days
d) Within 90 days
—
- Mary has a restricted license. This means she:
a) Cannot sell outside of her resident state
b) Cannot sell life insurance any longer
c) May have this license revoked or suspended without a hearing
d) All the above